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Cybersecurity Fundamentals

by RepeatMe Open Decks

Source: tltaylor1, https://github.com/tltaylor1/anki-decks (CC-BY-4.0), converted for RepeatMe.

security cybersecurity
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What's inside

What is the CIA triad?
The CIA triad stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability; three foundational objectives in information security. Confidentiality ensures data is only accessible to authorized entities; Integrity protects data accuracy and prevents unauthorized modification; Availability ensures that data and systems are accessible when needed.
Define authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA).
Authentication verifies a user's identity, authorization determines what resources they can access, and accounting (or auditing) logs their actions for monitoring and review; collectively forming the AAA framework in secure systems.
What is the principle of least privilege?
The principle of least privilege is a security concept that recommends granting users and processes only the minimal access necessary to perform their job. Reducing access limits the potential impact of compromise.
Explain defense in depth.
Defense in depth is a layered security strategy that implements multiple overlapping protective measures, such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems, encryption, and policy controls; to create redundancy and reduce risk exposure.
What is threat modeling?
Threat modeling is a proactive process to identify, prioritize, and analyze potential threats to a system by understanding its architecture, assets, and attack surfaces, and designing appropriate mitigations.
What is risk?
Risk is the potential for loss or damage when a threat exploits a vulnerability. It's generally calculated as Risk = Threat × Vulnerability × Impact, guiding how resources are allocated for mitigation.
What's the difference between threats, vulnerabilities, and exploits?
A threat is anything that can cause harm, a vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited, and an exploit is the action or tool used by an attacker to leverage that vulnerability.
Define zero trust security.
Zero Trust is a security model where no implicit trust is granted to any user or device, regardless of location. Verification is required for every access request, and continuous trust evaluation is enforced.
What is social engineering?
Social engineering is the art of manipulating individuals into divulging confidential information or performing actions that compromise security, often through deception or psychological manipulation.
What is a security policy?
A security policy is a formal document outlining an organization's rules and procedures for protecting assets, defining roles and responsibilities, and setting expectations for acceptable behaviors.
Explain access control models: DAC, MAC, RBAC.
DAC (Discretionary Access Control) allows data owners to control access. MAC (Mandatory Access Control) enforces strict policies defined by a central authority. RBAC (Role-Based Access Control) assigns permissions to roles, and users are granted access based on their role membership.
What is multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
MFA requires two or more distinct types of credentials, such as something you know (password), something you have (token), and something you are (biometrics); to increase security beyond simple password authentication.
Define encryption at rest vs in transit.
Encryption at rest protects stored data (like disks and databases) from unauthorized access, while encryption in transit protects data traveling across networks (e.g., TLS-secured network traffic).
What's a DMZ in network security?
A Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a lightly secured subnet that exposes external-facing services (like web servers) to the internet, isolating them from internal systems to reduce risk.
What is a security baseline?
A security baseline is a defined set of minimum security standards or configurations that must be met across systems and devices to maintain an organization's security posture.
Explain defense avoidance and evasion techniques.
These are techniques attackers use; like obfuscation, rootkits, spoofing, and tunneling; to bypass detection by security systems.
What is non-repudiation?
Non-repudiation ensures a party cannot deny the authenticity of their action, typically achieved through digital signatures, logs, and secure audit trails.
Define incident response lifecycle.
The incident response lifecycle comprises
Preparation,
Identification,
Containment,
Eradication,
Recovery, and
Lessons Learned
; a structured approach for handling security incidents.
What are PII and PCI?
PII (Personally Identifiable Information) is data that can identify individuals; PCI (Payment Card Industry) refers to standards ensuring secure handling of cardholder data under PCI DSS compliance.
What is GDPR's main principle?
The General Data Protection Regulation is centered on protecting EU citizens' personal data, requiring transparency, purpose limitation, data minimization, user consent, and data subject rights.
What is a firewall?
A firewall enforces a security policy by filtering incoming and outgoing network traffic based on defined rules to block unauthorized access.
Difference between stateful and stateless firewalls?
Stateful firewalls track connection state and context, allowing more complex inspection; stateless firewalls examine packets individually without context.
What's the purpose of an IPS vs IDS?
An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) alerts on suspicious activity; an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) can also block or mitigate detected threats.
What is NAT?
Network Address Translation (NAT) allows multiple devices to share a single public IP, translating between internal and external network addresses.
Explain VLAN and its security benefits.
A Virtual LAN segments a network logically to isolate traffic, improving security by limiting broadcast domains and controlling access between segments.
What is a proxy server?
A proxy server intermediates client and server requests, often providing anonymity, content filtering, and caching.
What is SSL/TLS, and why is it important?
SSL/TLS provides encryption for data in transit, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, and trust for network communication.
What is a VPN?
A Virtual Private Network creates an encrypted tunnel over public networks to enable secure remote access to a private network.
Explain split tunneling in VPNs.
Split tunneling sends some traffic over the VPN and some directly to the internet, balancing performance with access to internal network resources.
What is a bastion host?
A hardened single-purpose server placed in a network's perimeter, acting as the only exposed system to facilitate secure remote access.
Describe MAC filtering.
MAC filtering restricts network access by allowing only devices with approved MAC addresses.
What is ARP poisoning?
An attack where the attacker sends fake ARP messages to associate their MAC with a victim's IP to intercept or manipulate traffic.
How does a honeypot work?
A honeypot is a decoy system made intentionally vulnerable to attract attackers and analyze their behavior.
What is network segmentation?
Dividing a network into smaller zones to control access and limit attackers' spread.
What is port security on switches?
Port security restricts access by limiting the number of devices or specific MAC addresses allowed on a switch port.
What is DNS poisoning?
Manipulating DNS responses to redirect users to malicious sites.
How does rate limiting help mitigate DDoS attacks?
By limiting excessive requests from the same source, rate limiting helps protect availability.
Explain network forensics in a breach response.
Network forensics involves capturing and analyzing network data, such as packet captures, flow logs, and DNS logs; to investigate security incidents.
What is SSL stripping?
An attack downgrading HTTPS to HTTP to expose unencrypted data to interception.
What's the difference between active and passive scanning?
Active scanning sends probes to identify vulnerabilities, while passive scanning observes network traffic without probe impact.
What is a zero-day vulnerability?
An unknown and unpatched vulnerability exploited by attackers before developers can mitigate it.
What is a VPN concentrator?
A device that handles and scales multiple VPN connections efficiently.
What are TTPs in cybersecurity?
Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures define the behavior patterns of attackers.
Explain Snort.
An open-source IDS/IPS used to monitor and analyze network traffic for signature-based or anomaly-based threats.
What is SSL offloading?
Terminating SSL connections on a reverse proxy or load balancer to reduce encryption overhead on backend servers.
What are Data Loss Prevention (DLP) systems?
Solutions that detect, prevent, and monitor unauthorized data transfers to protect sensitive information.
Explain MAC vs IP whitelisting.
MAC whitelisting filters at Layer 2 based on MAC addresses; IP filtering applies at Layer 3 using IP addresses.
What is the rule evaluation order in a firewall?
Firewall rules are evaluated top-down; the first match determines action; order is critical.
What is remote memory forensic analysis?
Collecting memory dumps from a compromised system to investigate malware or system compromise.
What is ICMP tunneling?
Encapsulating data inside ICMP packets to bypass firewall restrictions.
What is the difference between SIGINT vs OSINT?
SIGINT uses intercepted communications for intelligence; OSINT uses publicly available sources.
What is network access control (NAC)?
Enforcing compliance checks (e.g., antivirus, patches) before allowing network access.
How is Splunk used in cybersecurity?
A SIEM platform for collecting, indexing, and analyzing security logs and events at scale.
What is a shimmer in payment card fraud?
A paper-thin device hidden inside a chip reader to capture EMV chip data, the chip-era successor to the magnetic stripe skimmer.
What are RADIUS and TACACS+?
Authentication protocols for network devices; RADIUS is combined AAA, TACACS+ separates them for detailed control.
What is Secure DNS (DoH or DoT)?
Encrypting DNS queries (over HTTPS or TLS) to protect from eavesdropping and manipulation.
Explain HTTPS interception by proxies.
Proxy decrypts HTTPS traffic for inspection, then re-encrypts it to maintain secure sessions while scanning.
Explain layered security in cloud architecture.
Implement security at multiple layers; network, host, identity, data, and app; to create depth of protection.
What is a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)?
A control hub that enforces security policies across cloud services and visibility into cloud usage.
Explain shared responsibility in cloud security.
Cloud providers secure the cloud infrastructure; customers secure their data, apps, and configurations.
What is microsegmentation?
Fine-grained network segmentation (e.g., VM-to-VM) to mitigate lateral movement within environments.
What is Infrastructure as Code (IaC) and how do you secure it?
IaC manages infrastructure through declarative code; securing it involves scanning templates, using secure modules, and code reviews.
What are security groups in AWS/Azure?
Virtualized firewall rules assigned to VMs to control inbound/outbound traffic.
What is a Web Application Firewall (WAF)?
Protects web apps from common web-based attacks like SQL injection and XSS by filtering HTTP traffic.
What are Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) tools?
Tools that assess cloud configurations against best practices and compliance standards.
What is secure boot and immutable infrastructure?
Secure boot verifies the integrity of boot processes; immutable infra ensures systems are replaced, not patched, maintaining baseline security.
Explain container security basics.
Securing images, registries, orchestrators, and runtime with best practices and scanning.
What is a baseline image in VM deployment?
A pre-hardened VM template with secure configurations to ensure consistency.
What is a vulnerability scanner?
A tool that automatically detects known software vulnerabilities on systems or networks.
What does 'secure by design' mean?
Embedding security considerations into architecture and development from the outset, not adding it later.
Explain secrets management (HashiCorp Vault, Azure Key Vault).
Secure storage and access control for credentials, API keys, and certificates.
What is a honeynet?
A network of honeypots designed to gather intelligence on attacker tactics across multiple systems.
Define Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and why it matters.
Framework used for digital certificates and key management; critical for authentication and encryption.
What is a Certificate Authority (CA)?
Trusted entity that issues digital certificates to verify identities.
How does SSH key-based authentication differ from passwords?
Uses asymmetric cryptography; more secure, immune to brute force, and not easily captured.
What's Azure ARM vs Azure IAM?
ARM: Azure Resource Manager for deploying resources; IAM: Identity and Access Management for permissions.
What is CORS and its role in web security?
Cross-Origin Resource Sharing; controls how web apps handle requests between different domains.
Explain Just-In-Time (JIT) access.
Temporary elevation of access for administrators when needed, reducing permanent privileged access risk.
What is cloud-native logging for security?
Collecting logs from SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS services for detection and audit.
What is container runtime security?
Monitoring and protecting containers during their execution for misbehavior.
What is Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)?
Assigning user permissions based on roles; simplifies management and minimizes excessive permissions.
What is Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)?
Access decisions based on attributes like user role, location, and time (contextual).
How do you secure API access with OAuth or API keys?
Use secure token-based authentication with limited scopes and short lifetimes.
What is 'Security by Obscurity' and why isn't it enough?
Hiding system details provides little real protection; must be paired with real security measures.
What is lateral movement in cloud environments?
After compromise, attackers move between resources in the same cloud environment.
What is container image scanning?
Inspecting container images for known vulnerabilities before deployment.
How do you secure serverless functions?
Use minimal permissions, input validation, and monitor execution context.
What is ephemeral computing?
Short-lived compute instances that are replaced rather than repaired, which shrinks the attack surface and simplifies recovery.
What is configuration drift and how to detect it?
Drift is divergence from desired state; detect with drift detection tools.
What is Shadow IT risk?
Unapproved systems or services used by users without security oversight.
What is a cloud incident playbook?
Predefined steps to respond to security incidents in cloud environments.
How does CDN security help mitigate DDoS?
By distributing traffic and absorbing attack volumes across edge nodes.
What is OWASP Top 10?
The top 10 web application vulnerabilities, as identified by the Open Web Application Security Project; used widely as a guide for secure development.
What is SQL injection and how can you prevent it?
SQL injection allows attackers to manipulate database queries; prevent using parameterized queries and input validation.
Explain Cross-Site Scripting (XSS).
XSS allows attackers to inject client-side scripts; prevent by encoding output and sanitizing inputs.
What is Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)?
CSRF tricks authenticated users into performing actions unknowingly; mitigations include anti-CSRF tokens and same-site cookies.
What is broken authentication?
Weak authentication systems that attackers exploit with credential stuffing or session hijacking; mitigate with MFA and secure session management.
Define Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR).
Occurs when users can access unauthorized objects by modifying request parameters; fix by authorization checks.
What is insecure deserialization?
Malicious data payloads cause code execution when deserialized; mitigate by limiting accepted types and validating data.
Explain directory traversal vulnerability.
Attack where user-provided path accesses unauthorized files; prevent using path validation or canonicalization.
What is parameter tampering?
Manipulating client-side parameters to gain unauthorized access; prevent via server-side validation.
What is clickjacking?
Attacker overlays content to trick users into clicking maliciously; mitigate with X-Frame-Options and frame busting.
What does secure coding mean?
Writing software with explicit efforts to guard against common vulnerabilities, including validation and sanitization.
What is Runtime Application Self-Protection (RASP)?
Security embedded in applications that detect and respond to threats in real-time.
Explain input validation vs output encoding.
Validation ensures input follows expected format; encoding ensures output is safe for contexts like HTML or SQL.
What is a buffer overflow and how to mitigate it?
Writing data past buffer size; mitigate using safe language constructs and bounds checking.
What is remote code execution (RCE)?
Attacker executes commands on a remote system; prevent with secure coding and input validation.
What are JWT tokens and how to validate securely?
JSON Web Tokens are signed; validation includes checking signature, issuer, audience, and expiration.
What is API rate limiting?
Throttle requests to prevent abuse or service overload; implement using rate limit headers or quotas.
What is input fuzzing?
Testing an app with random/malformed inputs to find vulnerabilities.
Why is code signing important?
Ensures code integrity and that it hasn't been tampered with, via trusted signatures.
What is a secure cookie?
HTTP-only, Secure, SameSite cookies; which reduce exposure to theft and XSS attacks.
Define privileged code execution.
Executing code with elevated permissions; should be minimized and audited.
What is a web shell?
Malicious script uploaded to a compromised server, giving remote access.
What is static code analysis (SAST)?
Automated review of source code for vulnerabilities before execution.
What is dynamic application security testing (DAST)?
Analyzing a running application to find vulnerabilities.
How do managed languages aid security against buffer overflow?
Automatic memory safety and boundary checks reduce common flaws.
What is STRIDE threat modeling?
Framework categorizing threats by spoofing, tampering, repudiation, info disclosure, DoS, elevation.
What is Content Security Policy (CSP)?
HTTP header that controls sources for content to mitigate XSS.
What's input sanitization vs validation?
Sanitization cleans risky characters; validation ensures the data format is correct.
How to secure file uploads?
Validate file type/size, store outside web root, and scan for malware.
What is server-side request forgery (SSRF)?
The app is tricked into making requests to internal resources, like the cloud metadata endpoint; prevent with URL allow-lists, blocked internal ranges, and IMDSv2 on AWS.
What is debugging risk in production?
Exposes sensitive data and code paths; disable debugging in live environments.
Explain application whitelisting.
Allow only approved software to execute; prevents unauthorized executables.
What is patch management?
Regularly applying updates to fix vulnerabilities and reduce risk.
How to secure session management?
Use secure tokens, zero session fixation, regenerate session IDs, and set timeouts.
What is a Golden SAML attack?
An attacker who steals the federation server's token-signing certificate can forge SAML assertions for any user and reach any federated service, bypassing MFA; used in the SolarWinds intrusion.
How do you ensure APIs are secure?
Authenticate, authorize, validate input, enforce rate limits, log usage, use HTTPS.
What is an incident response plan (IRP)?
A structured playbook detailing how to detect, analyze, respond, and recover from security incidents.
What is a Security Operations Center (SOC)?
A centralized team and facility responsible for monitoring, detecting, and responding to security incidents.
Define a security playbook.
Detailed, repeatable steps for responding to specific incident types (e.g., ransomware, data breach).
Difference between business continuity and disaster recovery?
Business continuity ensures essential services continue; disaster recovery restores systems after disruption.
What is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)?
Defines acceptable behavior and limitations for employees using corporate IT assets.
What is a Security SLA?
Defines security-related service expectations, like response times and availability.
Explain BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) security considerations.
Ensuring personal device security, access control, and data protection while respecting privacy.
What is GDPR's breach notification requirement?
Organizations must notify authorities within 72 hrs of discovering a data breach affecting personal data.
Overview of PCI DSS compliance.
Standards ensuring secure handling of payment card data, including encryption, access control, and monitoring.
What is ISO 27001?
An international standard for establishing, implementing, and maintaining an ISMS (Information Security Management System).
Explain SOC 2 compliance.
Reporting framework for security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of systems.
What is NIST SP 800-53?
A catalog of security controls for federal information systems and organizations.
What is cyber hygiene?
Basic preventative practices like patching, password hygiene, and backups that reduce security risk.
Due care vs due diligence; what's the difference?
Due care is acting responsibly to protect assets; due diligence is the investigation to ensure risk is managed.
What is threat intelligence sharing?
Collaborating on threat data between organizations or sectors to improve collective defense.
Define cybersecurity frameworks.
Structured models like NIST, ISO 27001, and CIS Controls to guide security program development.
Difference between Red Team and Blue Team.
Red Team simulates attackers, Blue Team defends; Purple Team combines collaboration.
What are common security metrics; to measure success?
MTTD (Mean Time to Detect), MTTR (Mean Time to Respond), incident counts, risk reduction.
Why leadership matters in security governance?
They provide direction, resource commitment, and enforcement for security initiatives.
What is an insider threat program?
Monitoring for misuse by trusted users; through anomalies in behavior, privilege access, or data exfiltration.
Importance of user security awareness training.
Helps reduce phishing and social engineering risks by educating users.
How do you assess third-party vendor risk?
Use questionnaires, security reviews, SLAs, and periodic audits.
What is a security maturity model?
Framework assessing the maturity of an organization's security practices (e.g., CMMI, NIST CSF maturity tiers).
How do you justify cybersecurity budgets?
Use risk assessment, ROI from prevented breaches, compliance requirements, and cost of recovery.
How to measure ROI of security investments?
Quantify risk reduction, saved incident costs, audit avoidance, and threat deflection effectiveness.
What is an NDA's role in cybersecurity?
Protect sensitive data shared with employees or third parties through legal agreements.
What is a data classification policy?
Categorizing data (e.g., public, internal, confidential) to enforce appropriate controls.
Role of encryption for data in transit vs at rest?
Encrypt during transit to protect against interception; encrypt at rest to protect storage compromise.
How do you build a security culture in an organization?
Engage leadership, run ongoing training, celebrate secure behaviors, integrate security into processes.
What is a cyber maturity assessment?
Evaluates security practices against a maturity framework to plan improvements.
Role of auditors in security programs?
Audit adherence to policies, regulations, and identify gaps or compliance issues.
How do you respond to audit findings?
Prioritize, remediate, document, and prevent recurrence through improvements.
Compliance vs security; how are they different?
Compliance is meeting regulations; security is broader, focusing on managing risks beyond compliance.
What are security governance components?
Policy, risk management, accountability, review cycles, continuous improvement.
Handling insider security incidents?
Conduct fair investigations, remediate measures, reinforce trust, ensure policy compliance.
Impact of failing to patch critical systems?
Leaves systems exposed to known exploits, increasing risk of compromise.
What are supply chain attacks?
Attackers compromise vendor software/hardware to infiltrate downstream targets (e.g., SolarWinds).
What is the 3-2-1 backup rule?
Keep 3 copies of data on 2 different media, with 1 offsite or immutable copy. It's a foundational backup strategy.
Why are backups still necessary for SaaS platforms like Microsoft 365?
Because native retention is limited and does not support point-in-time or granular restores. Backups ensure recoverability.
What is Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
The maximum acceptable amount of data loss in time (e.g., 4 hours of data).
What is Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?
The maximum acceptable time to restore service and data after a failure or incident.
What are immutable backups?
Backups that cannot be modified or deleted for a fixed period; crucial for ransomware protection.
What is the difference between snapshot and backup?
Snapshots are near-instant, on-system states; backups are independent, restorable copies stored separately.
Why is air-gapping important in backup strategies?
It isolates backups from the network, protecting them from ransomware and insider threats.
What is a full backup vs incremental backup?
Full backs up all data; incremental backs up only data changed since the last backup.
What regulatory frameworks affect backup/data protection?
GDPR, HIPAA, SOX, CJIS, and CMMC all influence data retention and protection requirements.
What is cloud-to-cloud backup?
A backup of data from one cloud service (e.g., Microsoft 365) to another secure cloud environment.
How does ransomware affect backups?
It can encrypt or delete backups, so immutability, offsite copies, and isolation are essential.
What are best practices for Microsoft 365 backups?
Use third-party tools, back up all services, support granular restore, and enforce retention policies.
What are some KPIs for backup systems?
Backup success rate, restore success rate, RPO/RTO compliance, storage use, and retention audit results.
What's the role of encryption in backup systems?
It protects data at rest and in transit, ensuring backup confidentiality and compliance.
What is backup sprawl and why is it bad?
Uncontrolled growth of backups and tools, leading to inefficiencies, risk, and increased costs.
What's the difference between hot, warm, and cold backup?
Hot = live/instant, warm = requires prep, cold = offline/archival with longer recovery time.
What is data deduplication in backup systems?
Eliminates redundant data during backup to save space and speed up processes.
What is BaaS (Backup as a Service)?
A cloud-managed backup solution handling storage, automation, scheduling, and recovery.
How should backup testing be done?
Regularly perform restores, automate tests, check data integrity, and document outcomes.